Why is the term post-structuralism preferred by most scholars to post-modernism, with which it was often used interchangeably?
Correct answer
C. The term underlines that post-structuralism is not confined to a particular post-modern period and is a position with shares more with its opponents, as scholar Waever argues.
Explanation
The correct answer is The term underlines that post-structuralism is not confined to a particular post-modern period and is a position with shares more with its opponents, as scholar Waever argues..